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READING TESTS

TEST 2: IELTS Actual Reading Test with Answers

1 – THE VALUE OF HANDWRITING  

A  

 ‘When I was in school in the I 970s,’ says Tammy Chou, ‘my end-of- term report included Handwriting as a subject alongside Mathematics and Physical Education, yet, by the time my brother started, a decadelater, it had been subsumed into English. I learnt two scripts: printing and cursive, *while Chris can only print.’ The 2013 Common Core, a curriculum used throughout most of the US, requires the tuition of legible writing (generally printing) only in the first two years of school; thereafter, teaching keyboard skills is a priority.  

B

‘I work in recruitment,’ continues Chou. ‘Sure, these days, applicants submit a digital CV and cover letter, but there’s still information interviewees need to fill out by hand, and I still judge them by the neatness of their writing when they do so. Plus there’s nothing more disheartening than receiving a birthday greeting or a condolence card with a scrawled message.’  

C  

Psychologists and neuroscientists may concur with Chou for different reasons. They believe children learn to read faster when they start to write by hand, and they generate new ideas and retain information better. Karin James conducted an experiment at Indiana University in the US in which children who had not learnt to read were shown a letter on a card and asked to reproduce it by tracing, by drawing it on another piece of paper, or by typing it on a keyboard. Then, their brains were scanned while viewing the original image again. Children  who had produced the freehand letter showed increased neural activity in the left fusiform gyrus, the inferior frontal gyrus, and the posterior parietal cortex – areas activated when adults read or write, whereas all other children displayed significantly weaker activation of the same areas. James speculates that in handwriting, there is variation in the production of any letter, so the brain has to learn each personal font – each variant of ‘F’, for example, that is still ‘F’. Recognition of variation may establish the eventual representation more permanently than recognising a uniform letter printed by computer. Victoria Berninger at the University of Washington studied children in the first two grades of school to demonstrate that printing, cursive, and keyboarding are associated with separate brain patterns. Furthermore, children who wrote by hand did so much faster than the typists, who had not been taught to touch type. Not only did the typists produce fewer words but also the quality of their ideas was consistently lower. Scans from the older children’s brains exhibited enhanced neural activity when their handwriting was neater than average, and, importantly, the parts of their brains activated are those crucial to working memory. Pam Mueller and Daniel Oppenheimer have shown in laboratories and live classrooms that tertiary students learn better when they take notes by hand rather than inputting via keyboard. As a result, some institutions ban laptops and tablets in lectures and prohibit smartphone photography of lecture notes. Mueller and Oppenheimer also believe handwriting aids contemplation as well as memory storage.

D

Some learners of English whose native script is not the Roman alphabet have difficulty in forming several English letters: the lower case ‘b’ and ‘d’, ‘p’ and ‘q’, ‘n’ and ‘u’, ‘m’ and ‘w’ may be confused. This condition affects a tiny minority of first-language learners and sufferers of brain damage. Called dysgraphia, it appears less frequently when writers use cursive instead of printing, which is why cursive has been posited as a cure for dyslexia.

E

Berninger is of the opinion that cursive, endangered in American schools, promotes self-control, which printing may not, and which typing – especially with the ‘delete’ function – unequivocally does not. In a world saturated with texting, where many have observed that people are losing the ability to filter their thoughts, a little more restraint would be a good thing. A rare-book and manuscript librarian, Valerie Hotchkiss, worries about the cost to our heritage as knowledge of cursive fades. Her library contains archives from the literary giants Mark Twain, Marcel Proust, HG Wells, and others. If the young generation does not lea cursive, its ability to decipher older documents may be compromised, and culture lost.

Paul Bloom, from Yale University, is less convinced about the long- term benefits of handwriting. In the 1950s – indeed in Tammy Chou’s  idyllic 1970s – when children spent hours practising their copperplate, what were they doing with it? Mainly copying mindlessly. For Bloom, education, in the complex digital age, has moved on.  

Questions 1 – 5:

Questions 6-9

Questions 10 – 14:

2- Growing up in New Zealand 

A.

It has long been known that the first one thousand days of life are the most critical in ensuring a person’s healthy future; precisely what happens during this period to any individual has been less well documented. To allocate resources appropriately, public health and education policies need to be based upon quantifiable data, so the New Zealand Ministry of Social Development began a longitudinal study of these early days, with the view to extending it for two decades. Born between March 2009 and May 20I0, the 6,846 babies recruited came from a densely populated area of New Zealand, and it is hoped they will be followed until they reach the age of 21.

B.

By 2014, fur reports, collectively known as Growing Up in New Zealand (GUiNZ), had been published, showing New Zealand to be a complex, changing country, with the participants and their families’ being markedly different from those of previous generations.

C.

Of the 6,846 babies, the majority were identified as European New Zealanders, but one quarter was Maori (indigenous New Zealanders), 20% were Pacific (originating in islands in the Pacific), and one in six were Asian. Almost 50% of the children had more than one ethnicity.

D.

The first three reports of GUiNZ ae descriptive, portraying the cohort before birth, at nine months, and at two years of age. Already, the first report, Before we are born, has made history as it contains interviews with the children’s mothers and fathers. The fourth report, which is more analytical, explores the definition of vulnerability for children in their first one thousand days.

E.

Before we are born, published in 2010, describes the hopes, dreams, and realities that prospective parents have. It shows that the average age of both parents having a child was 30, and around two-thirds of parents were in legally binding relationships. However, one-third of the children were born to either a mother or a father who did not grow up in New Zealand – a significant difference from previous longitudinal studies in which a vast majority of parents were New Zealanders born and bred. Around 60% of the births in the cohort were planned, and most families hoped to have two or three children. During pregnancy, some women changed their behaviour, with regard to smoking, alcohol, and exercise, but many did not. Such information will be useful for public health campaigns.

F.

Now we are born is the second report. Fifty-two percent of its babies were male and 48% female, with nearly a quarter delivered by caesarean section. The World Health Organisation and New Zealand guidelines recommend babies be breastfed exclusively for six months, but the median age for this in the GUiNZ cohort was fur months since almost one-third of mothers had returned to full-time work. By nine months, the babies were all eating solid food. While 54% of them were living in accommodation their families owned, their parents had almost all experienced a drop in income, sometimes a steep one, mostly due to mothers’ not working. Over 90% of the babies were immunised, and almost all were in very good health. Of the mothers, however, 11% had experienced post-natal depression – an alarming statistic, perhaps, but, once again, useful for mental health campaigns. Many of the babies were put in childcare while their mothers worked or studied, and the providers varied by ethnicity: children who were Maori or Pacific were more likely to be looked after by grandparents; European New Zealanders tended to be sent to daycare.

G.

Now we are two, the third report, provides more insights into the children’s development – physically, emotionally, behaviourally, and cognitively. Major changes in home environments are documented, like the socio-economic situation, and childcare arrangements. Information was collected both from direct observations of the children and from parental interviews. Once again, a high proportion of New Zealand two-year-olds were in very good health. Two-thirds of the children knew their gender, and used their own name or expressed independence in some way. The most common first word was a variation on ‘Mum’, and the most common favourite first food was a banana. Bilingual or multi-lingual children were in a large minority of 40%. Digital exposure was high: one in seven two-year-olds had used a laptop or a children’s computer, and 80% watched TV or DVDs daily; by contrast, 66% had books read to them each day.

H.

The fourth report evaluates twelve environmental risk factors that increase the likelihood of poor developmental outcomes for children and draws on experiences in Western Europe, where the specific factors were collated. This, however, was the first time for their use in a New Zealand context. The factors include: being born to an adolescent mother; having one or both parents on income-tested benefits; and, living in cramped conditions.

I.

In addition to descriptive ones, future reports will focus on children who move in and out of vulnerability to see how these transitions affect their later life.

J.

To date, GUiNZ has been highly successful with only a very small dropout rate for participants – even those living abroad, predominantly in Australia, have continued to provide information. The portrait GUiNZ paints of a country and its people are indeed revealing.   

Questions 15 – 20: TRUE – FALSE – NOT GIVEN
15/ Findings from studies like GUiNZ will inform public policy.
16/ Exactly 6,846 babies formed the GUiNZ cohort.
17/ GUiNZ will probably end when the children reach ten.
18/ Eventually, there will be 21 reports in GUiNZ.
19/ So far, GUiNZ has shown New Zealanders today to be rather similar to those of 25 years ago.
20/ Parents who took part in GUiNZ believe New Zealand is a good place to raise children.


Questions 21 – 27:
A Report 1.
B Report 2.
C Report 3.
D Report 4.

21/ This is unique because it contains interviews with both parents.
22/ This looks at how children might be at risk.
23/ This suggests having a child may lead to financial hardship.
24/ Information for this came from direct observations of children.
25/ This shows many children use electronic devices.
26/ This was modelled on criteria used in Western Europe.
27/ This suggests having a teenage mother could negatively affect a child.

3 – LET THERE BE LIGHT? 

A

‘Incandescent light bulbs lit the 20th century; the 21st will be Jit by LED lamps.’ So stated the Nobel Prize Committee on awarding the 2014 prize for physics to the inventors of light-emitting diodes (LEDs). Around the world, LED systems are replacing most kinds of conventional lighting since they use about half the electricity, and the US Department of Energy expects LEDs to account for 74% of US lighting sales by 2030. However, with lower running costs, LEDs may be left on longer, or installed in places that were previously unlit. Historically, when there has been an improvement in lighting technology, far more outdoor illumination has occurred. Furthermore, many LEDs are brighter than other lights, and they produce a blue-wavelength light that animals misinterpret as the dawn. According to the American Medical Association, there has been a noticeable rise in obesity, diabetes, cancer, and cardiovascular disease in people like shift workers exposed to too much artificial light of any kind. It is likely more pervasive LEDs will contribute to a further rise.

B

In some cities, a brown haze of industrial pollution prevents enjoyment of the night sky; in others, a yellow haze from lighting has the same effect, and it is thought that almost 70% of people can no longer see the Milky Way. When a small earthquake disabled power plants in Los Angeles a few years ago, the director of the Griffith Observatory was bombarded with phone calls by locals who reported an unusual phenomenon they thought was caused by the quake – a brilliantly illuminated night sky, in which around 7,000 stars were visible. In fact, this was just an ordinary starry night, seldom seen in LA due to light pollution! Certainly, light pollution makes professional astronomy difficult, but it also endangers humans’ age-old connection to the stars. It is conceivable that children who do not experience a truly starry night may not speculate about the universe, nor may they learn about nocturnal creatures.

C

Excessive illumination impacts upon the nocturnal world. Around 30% of vertebrates and over 60% of invertebrates are nocturnal; many of the remainders are crepuscular – most active at dawn and dusk. Night lighting, hundreds of thousands of times greater than its natural level, has drastically reduced insect, bird, bat, lizard, frog, turtle, and fish life, with even dairy cows producing less milk in brightly-lit sheds. Night lighting has a vacuum-cleaner effect on insects, particularly moths, drawing them from as far away as 122 metres. As insects play an important role in pollination, and in providing food for birds, their destruction is a grave concern. Using low-pressure sodium-vapour lamps or UV-filtered bulbs would reduce insect mortality, but an alternative light source does not help amphibians: fogs exposed to any night light experience altered feeding and mating behaviour, making them easy prey. Furthermore, birds and insects use the sun, the moon, and the stars to navigate. It is estimated that around 500 million migratory birds are killed each year by collisions with brightly-lit structures, like skyscrapers or radio towers. In Toronto, Canada, the Fatal Light Awareness Program educates building owners about reducing such deaths by darkening their buildings at the peak of the migratory season. Still, over 1,500 birds may be killed within one night when this does not happen. Non-migratory birds are also adversely affected by light pollution – sleep is difficult, and waking up only occurs when the sun has overpowered artificial lighting, resulting in the birds’ being too late to catch insects. Leatherback turtles, which have lived on Earth for over 150 million years, are now endangered as their hatchlings are meant to follow light reflected from the moon and stars to go from their sandy nests to the sea. Instead, they follow street lamps or hotel lights, resulting in death by dehydration, predation, or accidents, since they wander onto the road in the opposite direction from the sea.

D

Currently, eight percent of all energy generated in the US is dedicated to public outdoor lighting, and much evidence shows that lighting and energy use are growing at around four percent a year, exceeding population growth. In some newly-industrialised countries, lighting use is rising by 20%. Unfortunately, as the developing world urbanises, it also lights up brightly, rather than opting for sustainability.

E

There are several organisations devoted to restoring the night sky: one is the International Dark-Sky Association (IDA), based in Arizona, US. The IDA draws attention to the hazards of light pollution and works with manufacturers, planners, legislators, and citizens to encourage lighting only what is necessary when necessary. With 58 chapters in sixteen countries, the IDA has been the driving force behind the establishment of nine world reserves, most recently the 1,720-square-kilometre Rhon Biosphere Reserve in Germany. IDA campaigns have also reduced street lighting in several US states and changed national legislation in Italy.

F

Except in some parks and observatory zones, the IDA does not defend complete darkness, acknowledging that urban areas operate around the clock. For transport, lighting is particularly important. Nonetheless, there is an appreciable difference between harsh, glaring lights and those that illuminate the ground without streaming into the sky. The US Department of Transportation recently conducted research into highway safety and found that a highway lit well only at interchanges was as safe as one lit along its entire length. In addition, reflective signage and strategic white paint improved safety more than adding lights. Research by the US Department of Justice showed that outdoor lighting may not deter crime. Its only real benefit is in citizens’ perceptions: lighting reduces the fear of crime, not crime itself. Indeed, bright lights may compromise the safety, as they make victims and property more visible. The IDA recommends that where streetlights stay on all night, they have a lower lumen rating, or are controlled with dimmers; and, that they point downwards, or are fitted with directional metal shields. For private dwellings, low-lumen nightlights should be activated only when motion is detected.

G

It is not merely the firefly, the fruit bat, or the fog that suffers from light pollution – many human beings no longer experience filling stars or any but the brightest stars, nor consequently ponder their own place in the universe. Hopefully, prize-winning LED lights will be modified and used circumspectly to return to us all the splendour of the night sky.   

Questions 28 – 32:
Which section A-G contains the following information?

28/ A light-hearted example of ignorance about the night sky
29/ An explanation of how lighting may not equate with safety
30/ A description of the activities of the International Dark-sky Association
31/ An example of baby animals affected by too much night light
32/ A list of the possible drawbacks of new lighting technology

Questions 33-35

Choose ONE WORD OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.
33/ Too much ……………….. light has led to a rise in serious illness.
34/ Approximately ……………….. % of humans are unable to see the
Milky Way.
35/ About ……………… million migratory birds die crashing into lit-up tall buildings each year.

Questions 36-39: YES – NO – NOT GIVEN
36/ It is alarming that so many animals are killed by night lighting.
37/ It is good that developing countries now have brighter lighting.
38/ Italians need not worry about reduced street lighting.
39/ Bright lights along the road are necessary for safe driving.

Question 40
According to the writer, how much night lighting should there be in relation to what there is?

A Much more
B A little more
C A little less
D Much less

Categories
LISTENING TESTS

TEST 7: IELTS Actual Listening Test with Answers.

Video Practice Test!

SECTION 1

SECTION 2
Questions 11-15: Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-E, next to questions 11-15.

11 Science Museum
12 National History Museum
13 Car Park
14 Shopping Mall
15 Primary School

Questions 16-20: What is the improvement of each main point of interest in the area?
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 16-20.

A New entrance
B Free lunch provided
C Free information provided
D Increase in size
E Additional signs
F New exhibitions
G New structure

16/ CarPark
17/ Primary School
18/ Science Museum
19/National History Museum
20/ Shopping Mall
SECTION 3
Questions 21-23: Choose the correct letter A, B, C

21/ The proposal will

A be reviewed by two examiners.
B be added to the final grade.
C be returned with feedback.


22/ The proposal will consist mostly of

A topics
B methods
C results

23/ For the practice paper, the tutor has directed the students to make sure to

A pay attention to time limits.
B write at least 6,000 words.
C keep on topic.

Questions 24-30: Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
There is no need to 24………….. lots of people.
Pay attention to the 25………….. of the final report.
Prepare two 26………….., one for the teacher, another for the students
themselves.
The deadline of the final paper is 27…………..
The students can 28………….. their topics before the beginning of April.
Students deciding to change topics must deliver a 29………….. to the teacher in advance.
At the beginning of the report, the hypothesis and an outline of the 30………….. are needed.
SECTION 4
Questions 31-40: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Advertising Effect
The important factor to consider

The 31………….. that customers must travel affects the probability that they will buy the product.


Methods of communication

Advertising slogans are easier to remember if there is a 32………….. played with them.

Mandy’s Candy Store appeals to people’s sense of 33………….. to draw in
customers.

To an ad campaign for digital products, it is 34………….. that is extremely
important.


Effect on your product sales

The customer’s 35………….. after he or she experiences the ad is most
important.


Marketing strategies

On international flights, it is wise for advertisements to be displayed in the
common 36………….. of most passengers.

Very few young people buy 37…………..

The UNESCO website would be a good place to advertise for companies aiming to improve the 38…………..

One good location to place ads for suntan lotion is the 39…………..

A good scene for a water purification commercial would be wonderful sights of a 40…………..

Categories
LISTENING TESTS

TEST 6: IELTS Actual Listening Test with Answers.

Video Practice Test!

SECTION 1
Questions 1-6: Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Questions 7-10: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for
each answer.

Issues to Discuss
Communication: 7……………
Friends: 8……………
Cigarettes: 9……………
Cleaning: must 10……………

SECTION 2
Questions 11-17: Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

It is important for everyone to know simple first
aid 11……………
After an accident, one must firstly be aware of 12……………
After that, the first-aider must 13……………
Clearing of airways may not happen when patients
are 14……………
The mouth must be checked for 15……………
CPR must be done if breathing is absent or 16……………
CPR must be done up to the arrival of 17……………


Questions 18-20: Choose THREE answers from the list and
write the correct letter, A-G, next to the questions 18-20.

Which THREE pieces of advice does the first-aid officer say
are most important?

A Have proper equipment
B Give regular first-aid training
C Have a safety officer
D Instil safe behaviour
E Put posters on walls
F Have safety meetings
G Have first-aid boxes

SECTION 3 Questions 21-25: Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
21/ Nicole received the best information from the

A staff.
B students.
C cleaners.

22/ The product used most wastefully was

A copying paper.
B plastic.
C paper plates and cups.

23/ The proportion of interviewed people who expressed concern over
waste was
A 30%.
B 45%.
C 55%.

24/ The proportion who claim they take action over this problem was

A 10%.
B one third
C one half.

25/ Nicole thinks many people do nothing because they are

A lazy.
B uncaring.
C uninformed.

Questions 26-30: Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

SECTION 4: Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
31/ Society cannot
A find more coal and oil.
B reduce waste C02.
C take C02 from power stations.
32/ Turning carbon dioxide into a solid
A is slow but practical.
B can be made faster.
C cannot happen naturally.
33/ Seawater
A has lots of carbonic acid.
B has closely connected types of life.
C is highly acidic.

Questions 34-40: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Categories
LISTENING TESTS

TEST 5: IELTS Actual Listening Test with Answers.

Video Practice Test!

SECTION 1
Questions 1-5: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR
NUMBERS for each answer.

Questions 6-10: Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
6/ The main form of data collection will be
A questionnaires.
B Internet polling.
C face-to-face interviews.
7/ To finish in time, the staff will have to
A work late.
B come in early.
C take some work home.
8/ The final report will contain
A three appendices.
B material from the company website.
C a supplementary booklet.
9/ The final report will be handed in on the
A 5th.
B 15th.
C 25th.

10/ At the end, there will be
A an office party.
B a restaurant dinner.
C presents for all involved.
SECTION 2
Questions 11-15: Write the correct letter, A-F, for each answer.
Problems to Fix
A Birds in ceiling
B Broken windows
C Electrical fault
D Fallen tree
E Leaking roof
F Staining on walls

Questions 16-20: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each
answer.

Additional Details Concerning Repairs
The stained walls will be painted 16……………
Extra paint will be left in the 17……………
The baby birds will be given to a 18……………
The fallen tree will be used as 19……………
The smaller parts of the tree will be put in a 20……………

SECTION 3
Questions 21-26: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each
answer.

Questions 27-30: Choose the correct letter, S, C, or P.
NB You may use a letter more than once.
S Social History
C Cultural Studies
P Political Theory
What are the speakers’ favorite subjects?
27 Steve
28 David
29 Susan
30 Olive

SECTION 4
Questions 31-32: Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
31/ Originally, country
A required fewer workers.
B had lots of animals.
C were more interesting places.
32/ Now, the problems there
A can be solved.
B are numerous.
C are expected.
Questions 33-35: Choose THREE answers from the list and write the
correct letter, A-F, next to the questions 33-35.

Which THREE factors are typical of modern farming?
A Many overheads
B More machines
C Fewer types of products
D More frequent feeding
E Greater numbers of products
F More factories

Questions 36-40: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Categories
LISTENING TESTS

TEST 4: IELTS Actual Listening with Answers

Video Practice Test!

SECTION 1
Questions 1 – 5: Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer.

Survey Form

Dealing with: exercise (Example)
Time contacted: 1……………
Suburb: 2……………
Age Group: 3……………
Occupation: 4……………
Family: 5……………

Questions 6 – 10: Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The subject undertakes exercise by regularly 6…………… She does yoga in order to relax and 7…………… her muscles. When she was younger, she would 8……………, and in the future, she may go 9…………… although that will depend on whether she has enough 10…………….

SECTION 2
Questions 11 – 16: Write the correct letter, A-F, for each answer.

11 Quiet reading
12 Computers

13 Newspapers & magazines
14 Reference books
15 Audio section
16 Main library

Questions 17 – 20: Write the correct letter, A-J, for each answer.

17 Teacher-led discussion
18 Writing skills
19 On-call teacher
20 Language exchange

SECTION 3 Questions 21 – 24: Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
One of the basic strategies when listening to lectures is to use 21……………. This saves times, but it is only effective if they can be 22…………… later. More generally, it is necessary to format the page in anticipation of the 23…………… of the lecture. As an example, one can draw 24……………, tables, and flowcharts, consistent with the way the subject matter is presented.

Questions 25 – 30: Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

SubjectRecommended Page Design
25…………… Studiesflowchart, showing courtroom processes and 26……………
Culture Studies  table or spider graph, linking 27…………… thoughts etc.  
Management Theory  network  (like spider graph but has 28……………)  
Political Science  linear 29……………  
  Mass Mediajust use 30……………

SECTION 4
Questions 31-35: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Neutrinos

are everywhere 100 to 200 31…………… pass through our bodies every second.
are difficult to detect because of1. the presence of other particlesusually need a 32……………
2. the surrounding 33…… ………detection location usually 34……………
3. challenge of installing equipmentengineering is very 35……………

Questions 36-40: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer.

Categories
LISTENING TESTS

TEST 3: IELTS Actual Listening with Answers.

Video Practice Test!

SECTION 1
Questions 1-7: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Client Details
Name: Andrew Peterson (Example)
Educational Qualification: Degree in 1…………….
Previous Job: 2…………….
Hobbies: 3…………….
Main Skills: 4…………….
Expected Salary ($): 5…………….
Can start: 6…………….
Other languages: 7…………….

Questions 8-10: Choose THREE letters from the list, A-G.
Which THREE qualities do employers most value in their staff?

A Problem-solving skills
B Diligence
C Experience
D Flexible hours
E Independent thinking
F Good personality
G Qualifications

SECTION 2
Questions 11 – 15: Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

11 What does the centre provide first?
12 What is important to control?
13 What will be used to assess member’s fitness level?
14 How often is the exercise schedule reviewed?
15 How many exercise programs are available?
Questions 16-20: Write the correct letter, A-G, next to the questions.
Which place is best for

A jogging machines
B Yoga studio
C Weight units
D Front-desk area
E Squash courts
F Shower blocks
G Swimming pool
16 developing confidence?
17 reducing stress?
18 building fitness?
19 meeting others?
20 finding information?

SECTION 3
Questions 21 – 25: Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
21 The position needs someone good at

A Computers.
B Dealing with people.
C Arts.
22 The directors will select someone from the faculty of
A Arts.
B Computing.
C Business.
23 The position will require the person to
A Work long hours.
B Train others.
C Do weekend work.
24 The position will come with a
A Car.
B Parking space.
C Much better salary.

25 The best aspect of the job is it
A Gives more responsibility.
B Comes with a private office.
C Is a step to higher positions

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Candidates

Steven Abdul Lek Oscar

Years of
Experience
26………… 7…………. 8 …………… 12…………….
Qualification MBA 27…………… degree Certificates

Possible
Concerns
28…… limited English 29……………. 30……

SECTION 4: Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
31 Caves are

A Often ignored.
B Mostly in remote areas.
C Often difficult to explore.
32 People who explore caves
A Mostly need to know about cartography
B Enjoy overcoming the difficulties.
C Usually know about cave sciences.
33 China has
A Probably the most undiscovered caves.
B A growing number of cave explorers.
C Some of the best documented caves.
Questions 34-40: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Three Main Reasons for Cave Formation

DissolutionVolcanic Lava TubesAction of Waves
mainly involves 34……………topmost surface cools down and 35…………… hotter lava continue to flow beneathwaves pound in to cliffs then erode into 36 ……………or less rigid rocks.
Limestone cavesoften have formations made of 37…………… carbonate e.g. stalactites, stalagmites, and 38
e.g. Lechuguillafinally revealed in 39…………… interestingly, formed from the 40……………
Categories
LISTENING TESTS

TEST 2: IELTS Actual Listening with Answers

Video Practice Test!

SECTION 1: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for
each answer.

Example
Peter consumes far too much soft drink
Peter and Mary’s diet will be both sensible
and 1…………….
Every two months, they can eat 2…………….
On Saturdays, they will go 3…………….
This coming Saturday, they will go to 4…………….
In every meal, there will be 5…………….

Questions 6-10: Choose the correct letter, C, I, or B.

C Chocolate
I Ice cream
B Biscuits

Peter’s opinion Mary’s opinion

Tuesdays B 6…………….

Thursdays 7……………. 8…………….

Sundays 9……………. 10…………….

SECTION 2 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each
answer.

Advantages of Stanfield Childcare Centre

Detail Another Detail

1. Walls are 11……………. includes the 12…………….

2. Teachers are able to teach a 13……………. There are many special 14…………….

3. They 15……………. Surfaces daily. procedures to limit the spread of 16…………….

Questions 17-20: Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
NB You may use a letter more than once.

A Andrea
B Bella
C Cathy
Which childcare worker:
17 has her own children?
18 often sleeps at the center?
19 is good with shy children?
20 is a good cook?

SECTION 3
Complete the flowchart.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Foundation for Essay Writing
Decide on 21……………. you like.

Focus on 22……………. area of interest.

Write 23……………. statement.

Create 24…………….

Ensure this 25……………. clearly.

Questions 26-30 Complete the summary.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

There are several 26……………. involved in producing a good essay.
The writer must think independently and give 27……………. examples as support, each one with a reference (which is a 28…………….). The formatting must follow the 29……………. issued by the university, as well as the word count decided by the lecturer, although it can vary by 30…………….

SECTION 4
Questions 31-33
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

31/ Geocentrism
A has a long history.
B is similar to heliocentrism.
C took some time to be deduced.
32/ Heliocentrism
A was realised only recently.
B was not generally accepted.
C fitted the views of the church.
33/ The night sky
A is relatively simple.
B remains basically the same.
C was once used for navigation.

Questions 34-40Complete the notes.
Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Nicolaus Copernicus

started the Copernican 34…………….
his book published the year he was 35……………. and
then passed away
This book generated little 36…………….

Other scientists

Galileo was persecuted.
37……………. was killed.
even the sun believed to be in 38…………….

Modern geocentrism

based on the 39…………….
Believers also support creationism.
40……………. of Americans believe in this.

Categories
LISTENING TESTS

TEST 1: IELTS Actual Listening with Answers

Video Practice Test!

SECTION 1
Questions 1-6: Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

School Excursion

Day: Wednesday (Example)
Destination: 1…………….
Weather: 2…………….
Arrival time: 3…………….
Activities Planned
See: 4…………….
Eat: Catered lunch
Attend: 5…………….
Return time: 6…………….

Questions 7-10: Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Nationality %

7……………. 26

8……………. 25

9……………. 16

Indonesian 15

10……………. 8

Saudi 7

Other 3

SECTION 2
Questions 11 – 15: Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

11 The company deals mostly with:
A Big cities.
B Nature holidays.
C Nepal.

12 The overseas consultants deal mostly with:
A Asia.
B North America.
C Europe.


13 For deserts and gorges, customers should come in the:
A Morning.
B Afternoon.
C Night.


14 Trips to regional locations are good because:
A The buses are comfortable.
B There is storage for suitcases.
C They can be seen quickly.


15 SleekLine buses are particularly known for their:
A Service.
B Size.
C Comfort.

Questions 16-20: Write the correct letter, A-G, next to the questions.

16 Local Tours
17 Interstate Tours
18 International Tours
19 Asian Region
20 General Office

SECTION 3
Questions 21 – 24: Write the correct letter, A-H, for each answer.

Morning Afternoon
Monday Opening Lecture 21…………….
Tuesday 22……………. Study Skills
Wednesday x 23…………….

Thursday x x
Friday x 24…………….

A BBQ
B Careers lecture
C Computer lab visit
D Dance
E Library tour
F Student Union induction
G University tour
H Legal rights lecture

Questions 25-30: Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

25 …………….
26 …………….
27 …………….
28 …………….
29 …………….
30 …………….

SECTION 4
Questions 31-34: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each
answer.

Behavior in parks is controlled by 31…………….
Insect numbers are reduced by having 32…………….
A wilderness park does not have any 33…………….
Observing trees and lying in the grass are examples
of 34…………….

Questions 35-40: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A
NUMBER for each answer.

PARKS

1000 years ago

sufficient wilderness
large forests: people could 35…………….
desire to preserve nature began with 36…………….

Princes Park

land originally worth £ 37…………….
designed by Joseph Paxton
in the middle was a 38…………….

Neighborhood Parks

now regarded as a 39…………….
satisfy a natural desire
can be famous, e.g. in 40…………….